Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. (Mains) Exam 2012 of General Studies

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. (Mains) Paper 2012 (Held on 2-8-2011) General Studies Paper-II

(Answer is Bold)

1. The Multidimensional poverty index of UNDP includes—

1. 8 Indicators
2. 10 Indicators
3. 12 Indicators
4. 14 Indicators

1. Which one of the following is not an objective of JNNURM?
   1. Urban Electrification
   2. Urban Transport
   3. Development of Heritage areas
   4. Sanitation and Sewage

1. Which among the following is providing least institutional credit to agriculture and allied activities in recent years?
   1. Commercial Banks
   2. Foreign private Banks
   3. Cooperative Banks
   4. Regional Rural Banks

1. RBI had set up a committee to study and give suggestions on the microfinance sector. Its Chairman was—
   1. Y.H. Malegam
   2. Abid Hussain
   3. Bimal Jalan
   4. Rakesh Mohan

1. The Visa-on-Arrival Scheme (VoA) was started in the country in January 2010 on pilot basis. Which of the following countries, was not on this list in the year?
   1. Japan
   2. Philippines
   3. Finland
   4. Singapore

6. In which of the following years, Foreign Tourist Arrivals(FTAs) has registered decline over the previous year in the country?

1. 2006-07
2. 2007-08
3. C. 2008-09
4. 2009-10

7. Most recently, FDI has now been opened in which of the following sectors in India?

1. Gambling and betting
2. Lottery business
3. Chit fund and Nidhi
4. D. Retail trade

8. ‘Hariyali’ is the programme associated with—

1. Protection of rural environment
2. Provision of green fodder for animals
3. C. A programme of support for watershed management
4. A private initiation to create rural supply chain

9. The period of recommendations made by Thirteenth Finance Commission is—

1. 2009-14
2. B. 2010-15
3. 2007-12
4. 2006-11

10. In which of the following years the subsidy as per cent of GDP was the highest?

1. 2010-11
2. 2009-10
3. 2008-09
4. 2007-08

11. Which among the following is the largest item of current revenue expenditure of central Government in the year 2008-10?

1. Grants to states and Union Territories
2. Interest payment
3. Defence Expenditure
4. Major Subsidies

12. Which among the following institutions regulates the external commercial borrowings?

1. SEBI
2. Ministry of Finance
3. Ministry of Commerce
4. Reserve Bank of India

13. For which of the following states the share of services sector in State GDP has been largest in 2008-09?

1. Delhi
2. Maharashtra
3. Kerala
4. Tamil Nadu

14. Which of the following states is covered under the National Horticulture Mission (NHM)?

1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Himachal Pradesh

15. By which Constitutional Amendment the voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years?

1. Sixth third Amendment
2. Sixth Second Amendment
3. Sixth first Amendment
4. Sixtieth Amendment

16. Who presides over the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament?

1. Speaker
2. Vice President
3. President
4. Prime Minister

17. Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, President’s rule was imposed for the first time in—

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Travancore-Cochin
3. PEPSU
4. Bihar

18. The Political parties got the constitutional recognition for the first time in the year-

1. 1975
2. 1977
3. 1985
4. 1995

19. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

1. Prohibition of Liquor
2. Right to work
3. Equal pay for equal work
4. D. Right to Information

20. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body?

1. Union Public Service Commission
2. Finance Commission
3. Planning Commission
4. Election Commission

21. Which one of the following statements about the president of India is not correct?

1. He is a constituent part of Parliament
2. He Participates in the discussion in the two Houses
3. He address the two Houses at a joint meeting every year
4. He can promulgate ordinance in certain situations

22. Which one of the following motions, the Council of ministers in India can move?

1. No Confidence Motion
2. Censure Motion
3. Adjournment Motion
4. Confidence motion

23. Which one of the following conceptions is true about the Revolt of 1857?

1. Indian historians have described it as an Indian Mutiny
2. British historians have described it as a war of independence
3. It gave a death blow to the system of East India Company’s rule in India
4. It was for the improvement of the administrative machinery in India

24. Article 371 B of the Constitution of India makes special provision for which of the following States(s)?

1. Maharashtra and Gujarat
2. Assam
3. Nagaland
4. Manipur

25. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution vests the executive power of the Union in the president?

1. Acticle 51
2. Acticle 52
3. Article 53
4. Article 54

26. The Constitution of Indian provides for an Election Commission under Article—

1. 321
2. 322
3. 323
4. 324

27. Consider the following statements and state which one of them is correct?

1. Supreme Court of India has only original Jurisdiction
2. It has only original and appellate Jurisdiction
3. It has only advisory and appellate Jurisdiction
4. It has original, appellate as well as advisory Jurisdiction

28. The Framing of the Constitution of India was completed by—

1. January 26, 1950
2. November 26, 1949
3. February 11, 1948
4. None of these

29. Establishment of the panchayati Raj System was recommended by—

1. The Government of India Act 1935
2. The Cripps Mission of 1942
3. The Indian Independence Act 1947
4. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report 1957

30. The Guardian of Fundamental Rights is—

1. Judiciary
2. Executive
3. Parliament
4. None of these

31. In 2003, OBC states of Gurkhas was given in—

1. U.P.
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Uttarakhand

32. The joint Parliamentary Committee set up for probing the 2G spectrum issue, consists of—

1. 15 members from each of the two Houses
2. 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
3. 18 members from Lok Sabha and 12 members from Rajya Sabha
4. 16 members from Lok Sabha and 14 members from Rajya Sabha

33. The Joint Parliamentary Committee examining the 2G Scam is headed by—

1. Murali Manohar Joshi
2. P. Moily
3. P. C. Chacko
4. Sushma Swaraj

34. Which one of the following is not a correct situation of the status of a Central Council of Ministers at the time of the their resignation?

1. President’s rule will be imposed
2. The president will ask to continue till alternative arrangement
3. Alternative arrangement means earliest possible general election to be held to form a new Government
4. Outgoing Council of Ministers may have to hold charge till the formation of new Government

35. Which one of the following is not an important and permanent constituent in the Constitutional History of India as adopted in the Government of India Act, 1935?

1. A written Constitution for the country
2. Elected representatives responsible to the legislature
3. Envisaging a scheme of Federation
4. Nomination of official members to the legislature

36. Which one of the following is not Covered by the Anti Defection Law?

1. En-bloc defections in a party
2. Larger defection in a party in Various spells
3. Smaller defection in a Single spell
4. Party members in parliament casting vote either to topple or support a Government

37. Which one of the following is not concerned with the Panchayats?

1. The State Election Commission will conduct panchayat elections
2. The Constitution (74^th Amendment) Act
3. There shall be a fixed five year term for all the Panchayats
4. Fresh elections would have to be held within six months of the dissolution of a Panchayat

38. Which one of the following is Directive principle of the State policy?

1. Uniform Civil Code
2. Freedom of the press
3. Freedom of the Religion
4. Equality before Law

39. In a Parliamentary system of the Government—

1. Judiciary controls Executive
2. Executive controls Judiciary
3. Executive controls Legislature
4. Legislature controls Executive

40. Estimates Committee is Constituted from the members of—

1. Both the Houses
2. The Rajya Sabha
3. The Lok Sabha
4. None of these

41. Which one of the following points differentiate the Indian Parliamentary system from the British parliamentary system?

1. Collective Responsibility
2. Judicial Review
3. Bicameral legislature
4. Real and nomination Executive

42. Power of the president to grant pardons etc. is a—

1. Legislative power
2. Judicial Power
3. Executive power
4. None of the above

43. Right to Vote and Right to be elected in India in a-

1. Constitutional Right
2. Fundamental Right
3. Legal Right under an Act
4. None of these

44. Which among the following State has the lowest of elected member in the Rajya Sabha ?

1. Chhattisgarh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Jharkhand
4. Jammu-kashmir

45. Which one of the following was a leap year?

1. 1300
2. 1100
3. 1900
4. 2000

46. If 450 students take an admission test for joining a navodaya Vidyalaya of which 10% get overage and 20% fail to get through. How many of examinees would get admitted to the school?

1. 310
2. 315
3. 300
4. 410

47. What number will occur at the end of the following series?
13, 23, 34, 46, 59,……… ?

1. 69
2. 70
3. 72
4. 73

48. An individual is cycling at a speed of 25 km per hour. He catches his predecessor who had started earlier in two hours. What is the speed of his predecessor who had started 3 hours earlier?

1. 15 km per hour
2. 12 km per hour
3. 10 km per hour
4. 8 km per hour

49. If a 36 inches long strip of cloth shrinks to 33 inches after being washed, how many inches long will the same strip remain after washing if it were 48 inches long?

1. 47 inches
2. 44 inches
3. 45 inches
4. 46 inches

50. For natural numbers, the statement (a+b)+c=a+(b+c) is known as—

1. Closure law
2. Commutative law
3. Distributive law
4. Associative law

51. Which of the following number is such that if divided by 13, Yields a remainder of 4 and when divided by 17, it leaves a remainder 11?

1. 654
2. 589
3. 576
4. 760

52. If the code of ABSENT is ZYHVMG, then the code of PRESENT will be—

1. KIHVHGM
2. KIVHVMG
3. KITMHMG
4. GKITYTL

53. The diagonals of a rhombus are of length 24 cm and 10 cm. The perimeter of the rhombus is—

1. 72 cm
2. 68 cm
3. 56 cm
4. 52 cm

54. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50% then area of the circle will increase by—

1. 50%
2. 75%
3. 100%
4. 125%

55. Which one of the following is different from the rest as a class?

1. Guitar
2. B. Flute
3. Sarod
4. Veena

56. If the mean and Median for a moderately asymmetric distribution are 15-6 and 15.73 respectively, then its Mode is—

1. 15.69
2. 15.80
3. C. 15.99
4. 15.89

57. Frequency polygon can be superimposed on a histogram by joining the—

1. A. Mid points of the upper side
2. Left end points of the upper side
3. Right end points of the upper side
4. Neither of these

58. The cut point of Less than’ and ‘more than’ cumulative frequency curves corresponds to the—

1. Mean
2. B. Median
3. Mode
4. Q1

59. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn. The number of ways that these are one king and one Queen, are—

1. A. 16
2. 12
3. 8
4. 4

60. The average weight of 4 boys I 60 kg, the first weight one fourth of the sum of the last three. The weight of the first boy in kg is—

1. 15
2. 45
3. C. 48
4. 51

61. A batsman in his 17^th inning makes a score of 85, and thereby increases his average by 3. His average after 17^th inning is—

1. A. 37
2. 35
3. 33
4. 31

62. Following numbers have been written in ascending order. Their Median is 190. Find the value of x—
20, 35, 50, 80, 100 + x, 200 + x, 340, 520, 800 and 1205
A       45
B    40
C   36
D None of these

63. A beg contains 20 tickets marked with number 1 to 20. one ticket is drawn at random. Find the probability that it will be a multiple of 2 or 5—
A. 0.7
B. 0.6
C. 0.5
D. 0.4

64. There are 154 beads is a rosary and all are coloured, either ‘red’ or ‘blue’ or ‘green’. The number of blue ones is three less than red and five more than green ones. The number of red beads is—

1. 55
2. 52
3. 47
4. 45

65. For the Mean (A), Median (M) and Mode (Mo), the correct relation is—

1. Mo=3M-A
2. A=Mo=3 (A-M)
3. M=3Mo-2A
4. A=3M-2Mo

66. Two samples A and B have same standard deviations, but the Mean of A is greater than mean of B. Then, the coefficient of variation of A is—

1. Greater Than that of B
2. Less than that of B
3. Equal to that of B
4. None of these

67. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

1. Antifreeze compound   -Ethylene glycol
2. Antiknock agent            – Tetra Ethyl lead
3. Anti-oxidant                   – B-Carotene
4. Antibiotics                     – Copper

68. Which one of the following explosives does not contain nitroglycerine as an essential constituent?

1. Cordite
2. Blasting Galatine
3. Dynamite
4. Amatol

69. Which one of the following substances is used in photography and also as an antichlor?

1. Chrome red
2. Sodium thiosulphate
3. Hydrogen peroxide
4. Calomel

70. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

1. Antipyretic                    -Paracetamol
2. Antifoaming agent       -Polyamides silicones
3. Antiseptic                      -Aspirin
4. Antirachitic                   -Calciferol (Vitamin D)

71. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Borodeaux mixture is a mixture of copper (II) sulphate and calcium hydroxide in water and is used as fungicide
2. Boric acid is used in Pharmaceutical industry and also as food preservative
3. Dry Ice is solid carbon dioxide
4. Laughing gas is nitric oxide

72. Auxanometer is used to measure the rate of—

1. Photosynthesis
2. Growth of plants
3. Osmosis
4. Loss of Energy

73. Which one of the following is the longest flower in the world?

1. Lotus
2. Sunflower
3. Rafflesia
4. Glory Lily

74. Buckminster Fullerence is—

1. A form of carbon compound of clusters of 60 carbon atoms bonded together in polyhedral structure composed of pentagons of hexagons
2. A polymer of fluorine
3. As isotope of carbon heavier than C14
4. None of these

75. Censor mechanism of dispersal of seeds is found in—

1. Pea
2. Poppy
3. Cotton
4. Maize

76. An organism involved in the fermentation of toddy is—

1. Lactobacillus
2. Acetobacter
3. Saccharomyces
4. Penicillium

77. Litmus-the acid base indicator is obtained from—

1. Bacterium
2. Lichen
3. Virus
4. None of the above

78. Which one of the following plant fibres is obtained from stem?

1. Cotton
2. Coir
3. Sun hemp
4. Kapak

79. The type of fruit in which Litchi can be placed is—

1. Drupe
2. Hesperidium
3. Nut
4. One seeded berry

80. ‘Kuttu’ flour obtained from—

1. Tapioca
2. Fagopyrum
3. Palntago
4. Eleusine

81. Which one of the following is the correct from of www?

1. Window world wide
2. Web working window
3. World working window
4. D. World wide web

82. Which one of the following catalysts is used for hydrogenation of vegetable oils?

1. Zinc dust
2. Nickel
3. Platinum
4. Copper

83. Phenol is used in the manufacture of which one of the following?

1. P.V.C
2. Nylon
3. Polystyrene
4. Bakelite

84. After reaching the female genital tact human sperms retain their fertilizing capacity for—

1. Two minutes
2. Twenty minutes
3. Ninety minutes
4. One to two days

85. Which one of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?

1. Athlete’s foot
2. Tuberculosis
3. Ringworm
4. Thrush

86. Angora wool in obtained from a breed of—

1. Sheep
2. Fox
3. Rabbit or Goat
4. Tibetan Deer

87. One out of every 200 babies born in India, dies of diarrhea caused by—

1. Bacteria
2. Rotavirus
3. Amoeba
4. Fungus

88. Which one of the following varieties of dogs is unable to bark?

1. Dingo
2. Alsatian
3. Dalmatian
4. Labrador

89. The pulse in the human wrist beats—

1. Faster than the heart
2. Slower than the heart
3. At the same rate as the heart
4. Independently of the heart

90 Which of the following human organs is responsible for detoxication of alcohol?

1. Liver
2. Lung
3. Heart
4. Kidney

91 A geostationary satellite has a period of—

1. 6 hours
2. 12 hours
3. 18 hours
4. 24 hours

92. The concept of expanding universe is based on—

1. Doppler effect
2. Stark effect
3. Zeeman effect
4. Raman effect

93. Which one of the following coolants is used in the fast breeder reactor of kalpakkam?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Heavy water
3. Sea water
4. Liquid sodium

94. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

1. Knot-Measure of speeds of ship
2. Nautical-Unit of distance used in navigation
3. Angstrom- Unit of wavelength of light
4. Light year- Unit for measuring time

95. INS-Shakti is—

1. Oil Tanker
2. Submarine
3. Destroyer
4. Rocket Launcher

96. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

1. Cobalt-60-Treatment  of cancer deep inside the body
2. Iodine-131-Treatment of Thyroid cancer
3. Phosphorous-32-Treatment of Leukaemia
4. Gold-198-Treatment of retinal defects

97. Which mirror is used a rear view mirror in vehicles?

1. Plain
2. Convex
3. Concave
4. Cylindrical

98. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. Mirage is an optical illusion arising due to total internal reflection of light
2. Concave mirrors are used in search lights
3. In summer while light coloured clothes generally
4. Convex mirror with a small aperture is used by doctors to examine ear, nose or throat of a patient.

99. In the year 2009-10, Which of the following countries accounted for largest share in export from India?

1. U.A.E.
2. China
3. U.S.A.
4. Saudi Arabia

100. In the last one year i.e., June 2010 to June 2011, the difference between repo rate and reverse reporate is of the order of—

1. 0.25 per cent
2. 0.50 per cent
3. 0.75 per cent
4. 1.00 per cent

101. ‘Skill Development Initiative’ has been Operationalised in—

1. February 2005
2. February 2006
3. May 2007
4. April 2007

102. What is true for ‘Kurukshera’ among the following?

1. It is a theatre company
2. It is a lead magazine for rural development
3. It is a culture report of the central Government
4. It is a strategy for urbanizing rural areas

103. ‘Red Ribbon Express’ is a visual and moving medium for—

1. Awareness about AIDS
2. Awareness about Pulse Polio
3. Programme for protecting girl child
4. Programme for protecting all the children from malnutrition

104. India receives largest inflow of foreign capital in equity investment from—

1. U.S.A.
2. Singapore
3. Switzerland
4. Mauritius

105. Which of the following countries in not a member of Asian Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA)?

1. Leo PDR
2. China
3. Myanmar
4. India

106. Which of the following crops is not covered under the national Food Security Mission?

1. Pulses
2. Rice
3. Wheat
4. Coarse Cereals

107. Which of the following is responsible for the preparation and publication of ‘Economic Survey’?

1. Planning Commission
2. Ministry of Planning and Programme implementation
3. Ministry of Finance
4. Reserve bank of India

108. Which of the following States has lowest population density in 2011?

1. Rajasthan
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Gujarat
4. Karnataka

109. Which of the following States of India has lowest literacy rate, as per provisional figures of census 2011?

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Bihar
3. Rajasthan
4. Jharkhand

110. According to the Index of Government Economic Power (IGEP), India’s rank in 2009 was—

1. Second
2. Tenth
3. Fifth
4. Sixth

111. Recently a scheme named ‘Swabhimaan’ was launched. Its main aim is—

1. To take banks to the door steps of the rural poor.
2. To provide skill to rural artisans
3. To empower rural women
4. To provide houses to BPL families

112. Which one of the following towns of Uttar Pradesh has been included under the scheme of “Town of Excellence”?

1. Kanpur
2. Moradabad
3. Aligarh
4. Agra

113. In the Central Government budget 2011-12, a new category of ‘Very Senior Citizens’ has been created for the purpose of Income Tax. This category covers the persons of age—

1. 70 Years and above
2. 75 Years and above
3. 80 Years and above
4. 85 Years and above

114. Which of the following ‘BRICS’ nations has highest per Capita income?

1. China
2. India
3. South Africa
4. Russian Federation .

115. At the end of 2010, India’s external debt had crossed the mark of—

1. US $ 100 billion
2. B. US $ 300 billion
3. US $ 500 billion
4. US $ 1000 billion

116. In the financial year 2010-11, the Government of India announced a ‘Maharatna’ scheme for giving more autonomy and power to expand to some of its ‘Navratnas’. Which among the following was not given Maharatna status?

1. Oil India
2. NTPC
3. C. SAIL
4. Indian oil Corporation

117. During 2006-2010, Which of the following service sectors registered fastest growth in India?

1. Banking and Insurance
2. Construction
3. Transportation